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NEW QUESTION # 107
Which security concept requires continuous identity and authorization checks to allow access to data?
- A. Zero trust
- B. Secret management
- C. Traffic inspection
- D. Intrusion prevention
Answer: A
Explanation:
TheZero Trustsecurity model assumes that no user, device, or application should be trusted by default, whether inside or outside the network perimeter. Every access request must be continuously verified using strict identity, authorization, and context-based checks.
Unlike traditional perimeter security, Zero Trust emphasizes the principle of "never trust, always verify." Traffic inspection looks at data packets, intrusion prevention identifies malicious activity, and secret management safeguards sensitive keys and credentials. None of these approaches enforce constant, adaptive identity verification the way Zero Trust does.
By adopting Zero Trust, organizations ensure that access is not granted simply because a user is "inside" the network. Instead, continuous checks evaluate credentials, device posture, location, and other risk factors. This significantly reduces the risk of insider threats, credential theft, and lateral movement within cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which cloud storage architecture allows the digital rights management (DRM) solutions to associate metadata with the materials in storage?
- A. File
- B. Object-based
- C. Relational database
- D. Volume
Answer: B
Explanation:
Object-based storage architecture allows digital rights management (DRM) solutions to associate metadata directly with stored materials. Managing Cloud documentation highlights that object storage is designed to store data as discrete objects, each containing the data itself, a unique identifier, and customizable metadata.
This metadata capability is essential for DRM solutions, as it enables the attachment of usage rights, access restrictions, expiration rules, and ownership information to digital content. Because metadata is stored alongside the object, policies can be enforced consistently regardless of where or how the data is accessed within the cloud environment.
Other storage architectures lack this flexibility. Volume and file storage focus on block-level or hierarchical file systems with limited metadata support, while relational databases require structured schemas not optimized for DRM metadata association. Object-based storage's native metadata functionality makes it the preferred architecture for enforcing content protection and rights management in the cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 109
An internal developer deploys a new customer information system at a company. The system has an updated graphical interface with new fields. Which type of functional testing ensures that the graphical interface used by employees to input customer data behaves as the employees need it to?
- A. Security testing
- B. Load testing
- C. Regression testing
- D. Acceptance testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Acceptance testingevaluates whether the system meets user requirements and performs as expected in real- world conditions. In this case, employees need the graphical interface to work properly for customer data entry. Acceptance testing confirms usability, accuracy, and functionality from the end user's perspective.
Load testing measures performance under stress, regression testing checks for errors introduced by new changes, and security testing ensures system defenses. These are valuable, but they do not validate end-user satisfaction and workflow alignment.
Acceptance testing is the final validation step before production deployment. It ensures that updates deliver intended business value and user experience. By involving employees in acceptance testing, organizations ensure successful adoption of new systems.
NEW QUESTION # 110
What is the definition of transportable as it relates to cloud contract design requirements?
- A. Available in a proprietary format
- B. Available to be accessed by mobile devices
- C. Able to be archived quickly
- D. Able to be moved to another vendor
Answer: D
Explanation:
In cloud contract design, transportable means that data, applications, or services are able to be moved to another vendor. Managing Cloud principles explain that transportability supports exit strategies, reduces vendor lock-in risk, and enables business continuity.
Transportable solutions rely on standardized data formats, documented APIs, and interoperable architectures.
Contracts often include provisions ensuring customers can retrieve data in usable formats and migrate workloads if needed.
Access by mobile devices, proprietary formats, or rapid archiving do not address vendor independence.
Therefore, the correct definition of transportable is the ability to move to another vendor.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which regulation provides a guide for implementing the risk management framework?
- A. NIST SP 800-37
- B. PCI-DSS
- C. ISO 31000:2009
- D. ISO 27001
Answer: A
Explanation:
NIST SP 800-37 provides a detailed guide for implementing the Risk Management Framework (RMF).
Managing Cloud documentation explains that this framework offers a structured process for integrating security and risk management into system development and operational activities.
NIST SP 800-37 outlines steps such as categorizing systems, selecting and implementing security controls, assessing effectiveness, authorizing systems, and continuous monitoring. This lifecycle-based approach helps organizations manage risk in cloud and traditional environments consistently.
ISO 31000 provides general risk management principles, ISO 27001 focuses on information security management systems, and PCI DSS is a compliance standard. Therefore, NIST SP 800-37 is the correct guide for implementing the RMF.
NEW QUESTION # 112
In most redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configurations, data is stored across different disks.
Which method of storing data is described?
- A. Crypto-shredding
- B. Striping
- C. Archiving
- D. Mapping
Answer: B
Explanation:
The method described isstriping, which is a technique used in RAID configurations to improve performance and distribute risk. Striping involves splitting data into smaller segments and writing those segments across multiple disks simultaneously. For example, if a file is divided into four parts, each part is written to a separate disk in the RAID array.
This parallelism enhances input/output (I/O) performance because multiple drives can be accessed at once. It also provides resilience depending on the RAID level. While striping by itself (RAID 0) increases performance but not redundancy, when combined with mirroring or parity (e.g., RAID 5 or RAID 10), it offers both speed and fault tolerance.
The purpose of striping in the data management context is to optimize how data is stored, accessed, and protected. It is fundamentally different from archiving, mapping, or crypto-shredding, as those serve different objectives (long-term storage, logical placement, or secure deletion). Striping is central to high-performance storage systems and supports availability in mission-critical environments.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which risk relates to the removal of a person's information within the public cloud by legal authorities?
- A. Vendor lock-in
- B. Data masking
- C. Data seizure
- D. Remote wiping
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data seizure is the risk associated with legal authorities removing or accessing a person's information stored in a public cloud. Managing Cloud guidance explains that cloud data is subject to the laws and legal processes of the jurisdiction in which it resides.
In some cases, government agencies may compel cloud service providers to disclose or seize data as part of legal investigations. This can occur without the data owner's direct involvement and may affect confidentiality, privacy, and business operations. Public cloud environments increase this risk because infrastructure is shared and often spans multiple jurisdictions.
Remote wiping is a data destruction technique, vendor lock-in relates to dependency on providers, and data masking protects sensitive data. Therefore, data seizure is the correct risk.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which strategy provides the highest overall cost savings for an organization implementing a business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) plan?
- A. Implement cross-site replication.
- B. Deploy a hot cloud site.
- C. Migrate local backups to tape.
- D. Move all services to the cloud.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Moving all services to the cloud provides the highest overall cost savings for organizations implementing BCDR. Managing Cloud guidance explains that cloud-based services reduce capital expenditures, eliminate the need for secondary physical data centers, and leverage on-demand scalability.
Cloud platforms offer built-in redundancy, geographic distribution, and automated recovery capabilities that significantly lower the cost of maintaining separate disaster recovery infrastructure. Pay-as-you-go pricing ensures organizations only pay for resources when needed, further reducing operational expenses.
Hot sites and cross-site replication incur ongoing costs, while tape backups offer lower cost but do not support rapid recovery. Therefore, migrating services to the cloud delivers the most comprehensive cost savings.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which cloud computing service model allows customers to run their own application code without configuring the server environment?
- A. Software as a service (SaaS)
- B. Data science as a service (DSaaS)
- C. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
- D. Platform as a service (PaaS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Platform as a Service (PaaS) allows customers to focus on writing and deploying code without managing the underlying infrastructure. The provider manages the operating system, runtime, and middleware, enabling faster development cycles and reduced administrative overhead.
IaaS would require the customer to configure servers and operating systems, SaaS provides ready-to-use applications, and DSaaS is a specialized category for analytics.
By abstracting the infrastructure, PaaS accelerates innovation and reduces operational burden but also limits flexibility in some cases. Security responsibilities under PaaS focus on application-level controls, while the provider handles infrastructure-level protections.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which type of cloud security vulnerability is static application security testing (SAST) likely to find?
- A. Embedded credentials
- B. Hypervisor vulnerabilities
- C. Software misconfiguration
- D. Run-time vulnerabilities
Answer: A
Explanation:
Static application security testing (SAST) is most likely to identify embedded credentials. Managing Cloud principles explain that SAST analyzes application source code, binaries, or bytecode without executing the program.
Because SAST inspects code structure and logic, it can detect hard-coded passwords, API keys, and secrets embedded directly in application files. These vulnerabilities pose significant risk if exposed in cloud environments.
Software misconfiguration and runtime vulnerabilities require execution context, and hypervisor vulnerabilities exist outside application code. Therefore, embedded credentials are best detected through SAST.
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which cost is reduced by using software as a service (SaaS)?
- A. Energy costs with optimum use of IT resources
- B. General costs of licensing
- C. Support costs for hardware and software
- D. Ongoing costs by utilizing a single vendor
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using Software as a Service (SaaS) significantly reduces support costs for hardware and software.
Managing Cloud principles explain that in a SaaS model, the cloud service provider is responsible for maintaining the application, underlying infrastructure, operating systems, patching, upgrades, and troubleshooting.
Because the provider manages these components, organizations no longer need to maintain in-house teams to support servers, storage, networking, or application updates. This reduces operational overhead related to system administration, maintenance contracts, and technical support. SaaS also eliminates the need for hardware refresh cycles and reduces the complexity of managing multiple software versions.
The other options are less accurate. Licensing costs may still exist under subscription models, vendor lock-in does not inherently reduce costs, and energy efficiency is more closely related to infrastructure optimization.
Therefore, the most direct and consistent cost reduction provided by SaaS is the reduction of hardware and software support costs.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which phase of the software development life cycle includes creating user stories?
- A. Planning
- B. Defining
- C. Designing
- D. Developing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Planning phase of the software development life cycle (SDLC) includes creating user stories. Managing Cloud principles explain that user stories capture functional requirements from the end user's perspective and help define application behavior and priorities.
During planning, stakeholders collaborate to identify business needs, define scope, and establish development goals. User stories are used to guide development tasks and ensure alignment with customer expectations.
Designing focuses on architecture, developing involves coding, and defining establishes high-level objectives.
Therefore, planning is the correct SDLC phase for creating user stories.
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which general body of law covers data breach violations in a cloud environment at a federal agency?
- A. Civil
- B. Criminal
- C. Tort
- D. Administrative
Answer: D
Explanation:
Administrative law governs data breach violations involving federal agencies in cloud environments.
Managing Cloud principles explain that administrative law regulates the activities of government agencies and defines compliance obligations, enforcement actions, and penalties.
When a federal agency experiences a data breach, violations are typically addressed through administrative processes rather than criminal or civil courts. Oversight bodies evaluate compliance with federal regulations, policies, and standards, and corrective actions may be mandated.
Criminal law addresses offenses against the state, civil law governs disputes between parties, and tort law covers personal injury claims. Therefore, administrative law is the correct body of law for federal agency data breaches.
NEW QUESTION # 120
After selecting a new vendor, what should an organization do next as part of the vendor onboarding process?
- A. It should terminate the relationship with the vendor and dissolve technical agreements, data transfers, and other connections with the vendor.
- B. It should evaluate and determine whether the vendor meets the organization's requirements by evaluating its security policies.
- C. It should confirm contractual details and arrange other details such as technical agreements, data transfers, and encryption standards with the vendor.
- D. It should monitor the practices of the vendor by performing audits and confirming that the vendor is meeting its contractual agreements.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Once a vendor has been chosen, the onboarding phase requires confirmingcontractual details and arranging technical agreements. This includes specifying encryption standards, data transfer methods, SLAs, and compliance responsibilities. These discussions establish a clear foundation for the partnership.
Auditing and monitoring occur later, during ongoing vendor management. Evaluating requirements and policies occurs earlier, during vendor selection. Terminating a relationship is an offboarding activity, not onboarding.
Clarifying technical and contractual details at onboarding ensures a secure, compliant, and efficient partnership. It reduces risks of miscommunication and enforces accountability from the beginning.
NEW QUESTION # 121
During a financial data investigation, the investigator is unsure how to handle a specific data set. Which set of documentation should they refer to for detailed steps on how to proceed?
- A. Legal definitions
- B. Policies
- C. Legal rulings
- D. Procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Proceduresare detailed, step-by-step instructions that guide personnel on how to perform specific tasks in alignment with higher-level policies. In an investigation, when uncertainty arises about handling a dataset, procedures provide the exact operational guidance required.
Policies establish high-level rules (e.g., "financial data must be protected"), while procedures explain how to achieve compliance with those policies (e.g., "verify encryption, label dataset, log access, and escalate to compliance officer"). Legal rulings and definitions are external references but do not provide operational steps.
By following documented procedures, investigators ensure consistency, compliance, and defensibility in legal contexts. This also ensures that evidence is handled properly, supporting admissibility in court and protecting the organization against legal or regulatory challenges.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which component allows customers to transfer data into and out of a cloud computing vendor's environment?
- A. Load balancer
- B. Firewall
- C. Network
- D. Virtual display
Answer: C
Explanation:
Thenetworkis the component that enables customers to transfer data into and out of a cloud environment. It provides the connectivity through which data is uploaded, downloaded, and exchanged between customer systems and cloud infrastructure.
Firewalls protect the network by filtering traffic, load balancers distribute requests across resources, and virtual displays present interfaces, but none directly facilitate the transfer of data.
In cloud models, secure networking is critical. Protocols like TLS encrypt traffic, while VPNs and private links provide additional isolation. Reliable networking ensures availability, while strong controls safeguard confidentiality and integrity. Customers must ensure that the cloud provider offers secure, high-performance network services to support business needs.
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which regulation restricts the government from forcing a cloud service provider to disclose customer data?
- A. SCA
- B. SOX
- C. ECPA
- D. GLBA
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Stored Communications Act (SCA) restricts the government's ability to force a cloud service provider to disclose customer data. Managing Cloud guidance explains that the SCA establishes legal protections for stored electronic communications and customer records held by service providers.
The act defines conditions under which government entities may request access to stored data, requiring appropriate legal processes such as warrants or court orders. This provides a level of privacy protection for cloud customers and limits unauthorized or excessive disclosure.
GLBA focuses on financial data, SOX addresses corporate governance, and ECPA is broader legislation that includes the SCA but does not directly define cloud disclosure limitations on its own. Therefore, SCA is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 124
An organization's security architects determined that all authentication and authorization requests need to be validated before any employee can access corporate resources. Because of this, the organization needs to implement a system that stores and manages the employees' credential information and then validates any requests sent. Which system would allow the organization to meet the architects' requirements?
- A. Hardware security module (HSM)
- B. Identity provider (IdP)
- C. Bastion host
- D. Zero trust
Answer: B
Explanation:
AnIdentity Provider (IdP)is a system that stores and manages identity information and validates authentication and authorization requests. IdPs are critical in cloud and hybrid environments, supporting protocols such as SAML, OAuth, and OpenID Connect for federated access.
An HSM manages encryption keys, not identities. Zero Trust is a security philosophy requiring continuous verification, but the system that enforces authentication is the IdP. A bastion host provides secure administrative access but does not manage identity.
By using an IdP, organizations centralize credential management, enforce multifactor authentication, and integrate with Single Sign-On (SSO). This reduces password fatigue, increases security, and ensures consistent access control policies across applications and services.
NEW QUESTION # 125
Which phase of software design covers the combination of individual components of developed code and the determination of proper interoperability?
- A. Testing
- B. Coding
- C. Training
- D. Planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
The phase of software design that integrates individual code components and verifies their interoperability is Testing, specifically integration testing. After developers write and unit-test individual modules, those modules must be combined into a complete system. The testing phase ensures that these modules communicate properly, data flows correctly, and overall functionality meets requirements.
Planning establishes project goals, coding builds individual components, and training prepares users. None of these directly verify interoperability. Testing is critical because even well-functioning components may fail when combined, due to interface mismatches, unexpected data structures, or dependency issues.
Cloud-based systems often integrate microservices, APIs, and third-party services. Testing validates that these distributed components interact seamlessly. Proper testing reduces defects, supports reliability, and ensures a consistent end-user experience. It also aligns with DevOps practices, where continuous integration and automated testing pipelines quickly identify and remediate interoperability issues.
NEW QUESTION # 126
After creating a backup set, an engineer stores the backups according to company policy. Which action should the engineer take periodically to ensure the backed-up data is viable?
- A. The engineer should replace the old backups with newer ones.
- B. The engineer should delete backups according to company policy.
- C. The engineer should compare the old backups with newer ones.
- D. The engineer should test the backups according to company policy.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Backups are only valuable if they can be successfully restored when needed. Testing backups on a periodic basis is the only reliable way to validate their viability. Simply storing backups without testing may create a false sense of security, because corruption, misconfiguration, or incomplete backup sets can go unnoticed until a disaster occurs.
Industry best practices, such as those recommended by NIST and ISO 27031, emphasize regular backup testing as part of disaster recovery and business continuity planning. Testing involves restoring data to a test environment, verifying its integrity, and ensuring that applications can use the restored data as expected.
Deleting, comparing, or replacing backups might help in managing storage efficiency, but these actions do not confirm whether the backups are usable. Periodic testing ensures alignment with company policy, regulatory requirements, and internal risk management controls. It also provides confidence to management that recovery objectives, such as RTO (Recovery Time Objective) and RPO (Recovery Point Objective), can be met.
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following is an iterative software development methodology that focuses on achieving customer satisfaction by delivering the software early in the process and welcoming changing requirements from the customer, even late in the process?
- A. Agile
- B. Spiral
- C. Waterfall
- D. Lean
Answer: A
Explanation:
Agileis an iterative software development methodology designed to prioritize customer satisfaction, adaptability, and incremental delivery. Agile teams deliver small, working pieces of software frequently, ensuring feedback is incorporated throughout the process. This flexibility allows late-stage requirement changes to be accommodated without derailing the project.
Waterfall is a sequential approach with limited flexibility. Spiral combines iterative development with risk analysis, but it is not as customer-focused as Agile. Lean emphasizes efficiency and waste reduction but does not center on continuous delivery and adaptability.
Agile frameworks such as Scrum and Kanban embody this philosophy, supporting faster innovation, better collaboration, and responsiveness to evolving business needs.
NEW QUESTION # 128
An organization's leadership team gathered managers and key team members in each division to help create a disaster recovery plan. They realize they lack a complete understanding of the infrastructure and software needed to formulate the plan. Which action should they take to correct this issue?
- A. They should create a checklist of the necessary tasks.
- B. They should identify the key roles in a disaster.
- C. They should perform an inventory of assets.
- D. They should determine the criteria of a disaster.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Without a clear understanding of infrastructure and software, the leadership team must first conduct an inventory of assets. An asset inventory provides a comprehensive list of hardware, software, and services that support business operations.
Creating checklists, defining criteria, and assigning roles are important, but they rely on knowing what assets exist. Without an inventory, the disaster recovery plan would miss critical dependencies, making recovery incomplete or impossible.
Performing an inventory supports business impact analysis, risk assessments, and recovery prioritization. It ensures that all critical systems are accounted for and appropriate recovery strategies can be designed. Asset inventories are a foundational best practice for disaster recovery and continuity planning.
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which security threat occurs when authorized users increase their level of access in an unauthorized manner?
- A. Role assumption
- B. Man-in-the-middle
- C. Segregation of duties
- D. Escalation of privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
Escalation of privilege occurs when an authorized user gains higher access rights than originally granted, without proper authorization. Managing Cloud principles describe this threat as particularly dangerous because it involves legitimate credentials being abused rather than external attackers breaching the system.
In cloud environments, privilege escalation may occur due to misconfigured access controls, vulnerable applications, or excessive permissions. Once elevated access is obtained, a user can modify configurations, access sensitive data, or disrupt services beyond their intended role. This directly violates the principle of least privilege and increases the impact of insider threats.
The other options do not describe this scenario. Man-in-the-middle attacks intercept communications, role assumption is a legitimate access mechanism when properly authorized, and segregation of duties is a control designed to prevent abuse. Therefore, escalation of privilege is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which phase of the cloud data life cycle involves activities such as data categorization and classification, including data labeling, marking, tagging, and assigning metadata?
- A. Create
- B. Store
- C. Destroy
- D. Use
Answer: A
Explanation:
The cloud data life cycle defines distinct stages that data goes through from its origin until its disposal. The Createphase is the very first stage, and this is where data is generated or captured by systems, applications, or users. At this point, data does not yet have context for storage or use, so it must be appropriately categorized and classified. Activities like labeling, marking, tagging, and assigning metadata are critical because they establish the foundation for enforcing controls throughout the rest of the life cycle.
Classification ensures that data is aligned with sensitivity levels, regulatory requirements, and business value.
For example, financial records may be labeled "confidential" while general marketing content may be marked
"public." These distinctions guide how encryption, access controls, and monitoring will be applied in subsequent phases such as storage, sharing, or use.
According to industry frameworks, starting security at theCreatephase ensures that controls "follow the data" across environments. Without proper classification at creation, organizations risk mismanaging sensitive data downstream.
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which security control is a countermeasure against vendor lock-in and lock-out?
- A. Training programs
- B. Video surveillance
- C. Disk redundancy
- D. Offsite backups
Answer: D
Explanation:
Offsite backups are an effective countermeasure against vendor lock-in and lock-out risks. Managing Cloud principles explain that maintaining copies of data outside a single cloud provider reduces dependency and ensures continued access if services become unavailable.
Offsite backups enable organizations to migrate data, recover from provider outages, or exit a provider relationship without losing critical information. This control supports business continuity, portability, and resilience.
Video surveillance addresses physical security, disk redundancy improves availability within the same provider, and training programs improve awareness but do not reduce dependency. Therefore, offsite backups are the correct security control.
NEW QUESTION # 132
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