Get 100% Success with Latest CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-003 Exam Dumps Dec 23, 2024
The Best CS0-003 Exam Study Material and Preparation Test Question Dumps
The CySA+ certification validates the skills needed to defend and protect an organization's systems and networks from cyber threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification emphasizes the importance of applying analytics and intelligence to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities. CS0-003 exam covers various topics such as incident response, security operations and monitoring, threat intelligence, and vulnerability management. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification also emphasizes hands-on experience and practical skills, ensuring that individuals who pass the exam are well-equipped to handle real-world cybersecurity scenarios.
NEW QUESTION # 163
A security analyst is trying to identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region. Which of the following shell script functions could help achieve the goal?
- A. function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print
$1}').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short } - B. function x() { b=traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $b" }
- C. function z() { c=$(geoiplookup$1) && echo "$1 | $c" }
- D. function w() { a=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk-F "/" 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $a" }
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The shell script function that could help identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region is:
function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1}').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT
+short }
This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address, such as the country code, registry, or allocation date.
The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any network addresses that belong to the same ASN or region
NEW QUESTION # 164
During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application.
Which of the following recommendations would best mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase?
- A. Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CDflow
- B. Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked
- C. Implement proper input validation for any data entry form
- D. Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application security scanning is a process that involves testing and analyzing applications for security vulnerabilities, such as injection flaws, broken authentication, cross-site scripting, and insecure configuration.
Application security scanning can help identify and fix security issues before they become exploitable by attackers. Using application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) flow can help mitigate the problem of finding the same vulnerabilities in a critical application during security scanning. This is because application security scanning can be integrated into the development lifecycle and performed automatically and frequently as part of the CI/CD process.
NEW QUESTION # 165
A security analyst is reviewing a firewall usage report that contains traffic generated over the last
30 minutes in order to locate unusual traffic patterns:
Which of the following source IP addresses does the analyst need to investigate further?
- A. 10.50.180.49
- B. 192.168.100.5
- C. 192.168.48.147
- D. 10.18.76.179
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 166
An IT security analyst has received an email alert regarding a vulnerability within the new fleet of vehicles the company recently purchased. Which of the following attack vectors is the vulnerability MOST likely targeting?
- A. Modbus
- B. loT
- C. CAN bus
- D. SCADA
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Controller Area Network - CAN bus is a message-based protocol designed to allow the Electronic Control Units (ECUs) found in today's automobiles, as well as other devices, to communicate with each other in a reliable, priority-driven fashion. Messages or "frames" are received by all devices in the network, which does not require a host computer.
NEW QUESTION # 167
A technician is analyzing output from a popular network mapping tool for a PCI audit:
Which of the following best describes the output?
- A. The host is not up or responding.
- B. The host is allowing insecure cipher suites.
- C. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed
- D. The host is running excessive cipher suites.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The output shows the result of running the ssl-enum-ciphers script with Nmap, which is a tool that can scan web servers for supported SSL/TLS cipher suites. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that are used to establish secure communication between a client and a server. The output shows the cipher suites that are supported by the server, along with a letter grade (A through F) indicating the strength of the connection. The output also shows the least strength, which is the strength of the weakest cipher offered by the server. In this case, the least strength is F, which means that the server is allowing insecure cipher suites that are vulnerable to attacks or have been deprecated. For example, the output shows that the server supports SSLv3, which is an outdated and insecure protocol that is susceptible to the POODLE attack. The output also shows that the server supports RC4, which is a weak and broken stream cipher that should not be used.
Therefore, the best description of the output is that the host is allowing insecure cipher suites. The other descriptions are not accurate, as they do not reflect what the output shows. The host is not up or responding is incorrect, as the output clearly shows that the host is up and responding to the scan. The host is running excessive cipher suites is incorrect, as the output does not indicate how many cipher suites the host is running, only which ones it supports. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed is incorrect, as the output does not show anything about port 22, which is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH). The output only shows information about port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS.
NEW QUESTION # 168
An online gaming company was impacted by a ransomware attack. An employee opened an attachment that was received via an SMS attack on a company-issue firewall. Which following actions would help during the forensic analysis of the mobile device? (Choose two.)
- A. Performing a memory dump of the mobile device for analysis
- B. Resetting the phone to factory settings
- C. Unlocking the device by blowing the eFuse
- D. Uninstalling any potentially unwanted programs
- E. Rebooting the phone and installing the latest security updates
- F. Documenting the respective chain of custody
Answer: A,F
NEW QUESTION # 169
Which of the following techniques can help a SOC team to reduce the number of alerts related to the internal security activities that the analysts have to triage?
- A. Filter all alarms in the SIEM with low severity.
- B. Schedule a task to disable alerting when vulnerability scans are executing.
- C. Enrich the SIEM-ingested data to include all data required for triage.
- D. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 170
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:
Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?
- A. InLoud:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: Yes
Channing: No - B. TSpirit:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: Yes
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - C. PBleach:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: No
Smear: No
Channing: Yes - D. ENameless:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.
NEW QUESTION # 171
An organization wants to move non-essential services into a cloud computing environment. The management team has a cost focus and would like to achieve a recovery time objective of 12 hours. Which of the following cloud recovery strategies would work best to attain the desired outcome?
- A. Set up a warm disaster recovery site with the same cloud provider in a different region.
- B. Establish a hot site with active replication to another region within the same cloud provider.
- C. Configure the systems with a cold site at another cloud provider that can be used for failover.
- D. Duplicate all services in another instance and load balance between the instances.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Setting up a warm disaster recovery site with the same cloud provider in a different region can help to achieve a recovery time objective (RTO) of 12 hours while keeping the costs low. A warm disaster recovery site is a partially configured site that has some of the essential hardware and software components ready to be activated in case of a disaster. A warm site can provide faster recovery than a cold site, which has no preconfigured components, but lower costs than a hot site, which has fully configured and replicated components. Using the same cloud provider can help to simplify the migration and synchronization processes, while using a different region can help to avoid regional outages or disasters .
NEW QUESTION # 172
A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script:
Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script?
- A. Shell script
- B. Ruby
- C. Python
- D. PowerShel
Answer: D
Explanation:
The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems.
NEW QUESTION # 173
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company.
Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 174
A security analyst discovers suspicious host activity while performing monitoring activities. The analyst pulls a packet capture for the activity and sees the following:
Follow TCP stream:
Which of the following describes what has occurred?
- A. The host downloaded an application from utoftor.com.
- B. The host attempted to download an application from utoftor.com.
- C. The host rejected the connection from utoftor.com.
- D. The host attempted to make a secure connection to utoftor.com.
Answer: A
Explanation:
"Connection: close" mean when used in the response message? Bookmark this question. Show activity on this post. When the client uses the Connection: close header in the request message, this means that it wants the server to close the connection after sending the response message.
200 OK is the most common HTTP status code. It generally means that the HTTP request succeeded.
NEW QUESTION # 175
A security analyst is reviewing the logs of a web server and notices that an attacker has attempted to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability. Which of the following tools can the analyst use to analyze the attack and prevent future attacks?
- A. A web proxy
- B. A web application firewall
- C. A vulnerability scanner
- D. A network intrusion detection system
Answer: B
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is a tool that can protect web servers from attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and other web-based threats. A WAF can filter, monitor, and block malicious HTTP traffic before it reaches the web server. A WAF can also be configured with rules and policies to detect and prevent specific types of attacks.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3, "Security Architecture and Tool Sets", page 91; CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.0 "Threat and Vulnerability Management", Objective 1.2 "Given a scenario, analyze the results of a network reconnaissance", Sub-objective "Web application attacks", page 9 CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition : CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0.pdf)
NEW QUESTION # 176
A security analyst is reviewing the logs of a web server and notices that an attacker has attempted to exploit a SQL injection vulnerability. Which of the following tools can the analyst use to analyze the attack and prevent future attacks?
- A. A web proxy
- B. A web application firewall
- C. A vulnerability scanner
- D. A network intrusion detection system
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 177
A security analyst has received an incident case regarding malware spreading out of control on a customer's network. The analyst is unsure how to respond. The configured EDR has automatically obtained a sample of the malware and its signature. Which of the following should the analyst perform next to determine the type of malware, based on its telemetry?
- A. Transfer the malware to a sandbox environment.
- B. Log in to the affected systems and run necstat.
- C. Configure the EDR to perform a full scan.
- D. Cross-reference the signature with open-source threat intelligence.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.
Reference:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to "use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities". The book also covers the usage and syntax of EDR, a tool used for endpoint security, in chapter 5. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of malware signatures and how they can be used to identify malware types1, page 203. It also discusses the benefits and challenges of using open-source threat intelligence sources to enhance security analysis1, page 211. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.
NEW QUESTION # 178
While reviewing the web server logs a security analyst notices the following snippet
..\../..\../boot.ini
Which of the following is being attempted?
- A. Directory traversal
- B. Remote file inclusion
- C. Enumeration of/etc/pasawd
- D. Cross-site scripting
- E. Remote code execution
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 179
An incident response analyst is taking over an investigation from another analyst. The investigation has been going on for the past few days. Which of the following steps is most important during the transition between the two analysts?
- A. Identify and discuss the lessons learned with the prior analyst.
- B. Accept all findings and continue to investigate the next item target.
- C. Review the steps that the previous analyst followed.
- D. Validate the root cause from the prior analyst.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reviewing the steps that the previous analyst followed is the most important step during the transition, as it ensures continuity and consistency of the investigation. It also helps the new analyst to understand the current status, scope, and findings of the investigation, and to avoid repeating the same actions or missing any important details. The other options are either less important, premature, or potentially biased. Reference: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Incident Response and Management, page 191. Incident response best practices and tips, Tip 1: Always pack a jump bag.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A cybersecurity team has witnessed numerous vulnerability events recently that have affected operating systems. The team decides to implement host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication. Which of the following does this most likely describe?
- A. Secure access service edge
- B. Continuous authorization
- C. System hardening
- D. Hybrid network architecture
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is
A) System hardening.
System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface, applying patches and updates, configuring security settings, and implementing security controls. System hardening can help prevent or mitigate vulnerability events that may affect operating systems. Host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication are examples of security controls that can be applied to harden a system1.
The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.
NEW QUESTION # 181
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Based on the metrics from the scan results, the analyst must prioritize which hosts to patch. The analyst runs the tool and receives the following output:
Which of the following hosts should be patched first, based on the metrics?
- A. host02
- B. host03
- C. host01
- D. host04
Answer: B
Explanation:
Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later.
NEW QUESTION # 182
A disgruntled open-source developer has decided to sabotage a code repository with a logic bomb that will act as a wiper. Which of the following parts of the Cyber Kill Chain does this act exhibit?
- A. Reconnaissance
- B. Weaponization
- C. Installation
- D. Exploitation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.
Reference:
Cyber Kill Chain | Lockheed Martin, which states: "In the weaponization step, the adversary creates remote access malware weapon, such as a virus or worm, tailored to one or more vulnerabilities." The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack - EC-Council, which states: "In the weaponization stage, all of the attacker's preparatory work culminates in the creation of malware to be used against an identified target." What is the Cyber Kill Chain? Introduction Guide - CrowdStrike, which states: "Weaponization: The attacker creates a malicious payload that will be delivered to the target."
NEW QUESTION # 183
Patches for two highly exploited vulnerabilities were released on the same Friday afternoon. Information about the systems and vulnerabilities is shown in the tables below:
Which of the following should the security analyst prioritize for remediation?
- A. manning
- B. brees
- C. brady
- D. rogers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Brady should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of affected users. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Brady has a risk score of 9 x 0.8 = 7.2, which is higher than any other system. Brady also has 500 affected users, which is more than any other system. Therefore, patching brady would reduce the most risk and impact for the organization. The other systems have lower risk scores and lower numbers of affected users, so they can be remediated later.
NEW QUESTION # 184
A web application team notifies a SOC analyst that there are thousands of HTTP/404 events on the public-facing web server. Which of the following is the next step for the analyst to take?
- A. Instruct the firewall engineer that a rule needs to be added to block this external server.
- B. Identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity.
- C. Notify the incident response team that a DDoS attack is occurring.
- D. Escalate the event to an incident and notify the SOC manager of the activity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A HTTP/404 error code means that the requested page or resource was not found on the web server. This could be caused by various reasons, such as incorrect URLs, moved or deleted pages, missing assets, or server misconfigurations123. The analyst should first identify the source of the requests and examine the related activity to determine if they are legitimate or malicious, and what actions need to be taken to resolve the issue. The other options are either premature or irrelevant without further investigation. Reference: 1: 404 Page Not Found Error: What It Is and How to Fix It 2: 404 Error Code: What Causes Them and How To Fix It 3: About 404 errors and how to Troubleshoot it?
NEW QUESTION # 185
An organization recently changed its BC and DR plans. Which of the following would best allow for the incident response team to test the changes without any impact to the business?
- A. Migrate active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location.
- B. Perform a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios.
- C. Simulate an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center.
- D. Compare the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Performing a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios is the best way to test the changes to the BC and DR plans without any impact to the business, as it is a low-cost and low-risk method of exercising the plans and identifying any gaps or issues. A tabletop drill is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves gathering key personnel from different departments and roles and discussing how they would respond to a hypothetical incident scenario. A tabletop drill does not involve any actual simulation or disruption of the systems or processes, but rather relies on verbal communication and documentation review. A tabletop drill can help to ensure that everyone is familiar with the BC/DR plans, that the plans reflect the current state of the organization, and that the plans are consistent and coordinated across different functions. The other options are not as suitable as performing a tabletop drill, as they involve more cost, risk, or impact to the business.
Simulating an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves creating an actual disruption or outage of a critical system or process, and observing how the organization responds and recovers. This type of exercise can provide a realistic assessment of the BC/DR capabilities, but it can also cause significant impact to the business operations, customers, and reputation.
Migrating active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves switching over from one system or site to another, and verifying that the backup system or site can support the normal operations. This type of exercise can help to validate the functionality and performance of the backup system or site, but it can also incur high costs, complexity, and potential errors or failures. Comparing the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents is a type of BC/DR activity that involves reviewing past experiences and outcomes, and identifying best practices or improvement opportunities. This activity can help to update and refine the BC/DR plans, but it does not test or validate them in a simulated or actual scenario
NEW QUESTION # 186
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