Latest Nov 12, 2022 HPE6-A75 Brain Dump A Study Guide with Tips & Tricks for passing Exam [Q16-Q41]

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Latest Nov 12, 2022 HPE6-A75 Brain Dump: A Study Guide with Tips & Tricks for passing Exam

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HP HPE6-A75 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Given a customer scenario, explain how a specific technology or solution would meet the customer requirements
  • Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures
Topic 2
  • Explain mobility integration features and configuration concepts
  • Given a customer scenario, choose the appropriate components that should be included on the BOM
Topic 3
  • Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions
  • Given the customer requirements, determine the component details and document the high-level design
Topic 4
  • Given a scenario with an identified security issue, determine the remediation actions
  • Given a scenario, translate the business needs of the environment into technical customer requirements
Topic 5
  • Given a scenario, predict the outcome based on the changes to the security configuration
  • Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture
Topic 6
  • Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design
  • Given the customer requirements, design the high-level architecture
Topic 7
  • Given a scenario, evaluate the customer requirements to identify gaps per a gap analysis
  • Given a customer scenario, design and document the logical and physical network solutions

 

NEW QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

  • A. mike
  • B. We can't know this from the screenshot above.
  • C. Employee
  • D. john

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statements accurately describe the status of the Onboarded devices in the configuration tor the network settings shown? (Select two.)

  • A. They will perform 802.1X authentication when connecting to the SSID.
  • B. They will connect to secure_emp SSID after provisioning.
  • C. They will connect to Employee_Secure SSID after provisioning.
  • D. They will connect to Employee_Secure SSID for provisioning their devices.
  • E. They will use WPA2-PSK with AES when connecting to the SSID.

Answer: A,B

 

NEW QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

Several interfaces on an AOS-Switch enforce 802. IX to a RADIUS server at 10.254.378.521. The interface 802. IX settings are shown in the exhibit, and 802. IX is also enabled globally. The security team have added a requirement tor port security on the interfaces as well. Before administrators enable port security, which additional step must they complete to prevent issues?

  • A. Set an 802. l X client limit on the interfaces.
  • B. Manually add legitimate MAC addresses to the switch authorized MAC list.
  • C. Enable DHCP snooping on VLAN 20.
  • D. Enable eavesdropping protection on the interfaces.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 19
A company has AOS-Switches deployed at sites with inexperienced IT staff. The main office network administrators want to track if configurations change on branch switches. What should be set up for this purpose?

  • A. an auto-config server
  • B. an RMON alarm
  • C. an lP SLA profile
  • D. an SNMP trap

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 20
An administrator supports a RAP to a branch office. Employees at the branch office connect to an employee SSID that allows for split tunneling of the employee traffic. The RAP initially connects to the corporate office controller, but later loses connectivity to it.
Which operating mode should the administrator configure for a secondary SSID to be advertised during the loss of connectivity?

  • A. Always
  • B. Backup
  • C. Standard
  • D. Persistent

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration for the client's certificate private key as shown, which statements accurately describe the settings? (Select two.)

  • A. More bits in the private key will increase security.
  • B. The private key for TLS client certificates is not created.
  • C. More bits in the private key will reduce security.
  • D. The private key is stored in the user device.
  • E. The private key is stored in the ClearPass server.

Answer: A,D

 

NEW QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Switch-1 and Switch-2 connect on interface A23. The switches experience a connectivity issue. The network administrator sees that both switches show this interface as up. The administrator sees the output shown in the exhibit on Switch-1.
What is a typical issue that could cause this output?

  • A. mismatched IP addresses on the VLAN for the link
  • B. an issue with queuing, caused by mismatched QoS settings
  • C. a hardware issue, such as a broken cable
  • D. asymmetric routing introduced by a routing configuration error

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 23
A network administrator configures V5F settings on two Aruba 2930F switches. The switches form two separate VSF fabrics. What should the administrator check?

  • A. that the switch with the lower priority has the lower member ID
  • B. that each switch is assigned a unique VSF priority
  • C. that LLDP MAD is configured on both members
  • D. that the domain ID matches on both switches

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 24
A university wants to deploy ClearPass with the Guest module. They have two types of users that need to use web login authentication. The first type of users are students whose accounts are in an Active Directory server. The second type of users are friends of students who need to self-register to access the network.
How should the service be setup in the Policy Manager for this Network?

  • A. Either the Guest User Repository or Active Directory server should be the single authentication source
  • B. Guest User Repository as the authentication source and the Active Directory server as the authorization source
  • C. Guest User Repository as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository and Active Directory server as authorization sources
  • D. Active Directory server as the authentication source, and Guest User Repository as the authorization source
  • E. Guest User Repository and Active Directory server both as authentication sources

Answer: E

 

NEW QUESTION 25
A customer wants to implement Virtual IP redundancy, such that in case of a ClearPass server outage, 802.1x authentications will not be interrupted. The administrator has enabled a single Virtual IP address on two ClearPass servers.
Which statements accurately describe next steps? (Select two.)

  • A. Both the primary and secondary nodes will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
  • B. A new Virtual IP address should be created for each NAD.
  • C. The primary node will respond to authentication requests sent to the Virtual IP address when the primary node is active.
  • D. The NAD should be configured with the primary node IP address for RADIUS authentication on the 802.1x network.
  • E. The NAD should be configured with the Virtual IP address for RADIUS authentications on the 802.1x network.

Answer: C,E

 

NEW QUESTION 26
A company has AOS-Switches, Aruba ClearPass, and Aruba Airwave. A network administrator needs to set up a new switch with the same settings found on other switches in the company. Which action rs likely to be the most useful to perform the task?

  • A. Use the configuration audit tool on AirWave.
  • B. View the current running config on each switch.
  • C. Access the Network Device view on ClearPass.
  • D. View usage patterns on the switches on AirWave.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 27
An administrator mistakenly configures the wrong VLAN setting on a managed controller's interface. This causes the controller to lose management access to the Mobility Master (MM).
Which mechanism will then attempt to restore the previous working configuration on the managed controller?

  • A. restore config
  • B. bulk configuration
  • C. disaster recovery
  • D. auto-rollback

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator sets up 802.1X authentication to a RADIUS server on an AOS-Switch. The RADIUS server and user devices are both set up to use REAP MSCHAPv2. The administrator tests the authentication and sees the output shown in the exhibit. Which issue could cause this output?

  • A. The switch port is set for user mode 801. IX. but the RADIUS server is set for port mode.
  • B. The administrator entered the wrong password for the test account.
  • C. The RADIUS shared secret does not match on the switch and the server.
  • D. The switch does not have a certificate tor port-access installed on the switch.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 29
An administrator configures an ArubaOS-Switch for per -user tunneled node. Which protocols does the switch use to establish and maintain a connection with the Aruba Mobility Controller (MO? (Select two.)

  • A. GRE
  • B. SSL
  • C. PAPI
  • D. IPSec

Answer: A,C

 

NEW QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of the captive portal URL hash key on an AOS-Switch?

  • A. It does not let users alter the URL that redirects them to the portal.
  • B. It encrypts and secures the RADIUS messages that the AOS-Switch sends to ClearPass.
  • C. It specifies the captive portal URL and conceals the setting in the config.
  • D. It authenticates guest users based on the password the users enter hi the portal.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 31
The administrator expects the AP to connect to a cluster, but the AP tails to connect. The administrator examines the configuration of an AP from apboot mode shown in the exhibit. What can the administrator determine about the configuration of the AP?

  • A. The AP is configured as a RAP to terminate on a stand-alone controller.
  • B. The AP is configured to terminate on a non-cluster Mobility Controller.
  • C. The AP is configured to terminate on a Mobility Controller in a cluster.
  • D. The AP is configured as a RAP to terminate on a Mobility Master.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 32
What must an OSPF router do when it receives a link state update?

  • A. It must initiate a graceful restart timer.
  • B. It must run the shortest path first algorithm.
  • C. It must re-establish adjacency with its Designated Router and Backup DR.
  • D. It must participate in a new election for the Designated Router and Backup DR.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 33
When is it necessary to use an SNMP based Enforcement profile to send a VIAN?

  • A. When we have to assign a VLAN to a wired user on an Aruba Mobility Access Switch.
  • B. When we have to assign a VLAN to a wireless user on an Aruba Mobility Controller.
  • C. When we have to assign a VLAN to a wired user on a third party wired switch that doesn't support RADIUS authentication.
  • D. When we have to assign a VIAN to a wired user on an Aruba Mobility Controller.
  • E. When we have to assign a vlan to a wired user on a third party wired switch that doesn't support RADIUS return attributes.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 34
What is true about clustering and AP connections to cluster members?

  • A. During rebalancing, the active load is redistributed first.
  • B. The AP will always stay connected to the LMS IP address configured in the AP profile.
  • C. The default thresholds are 75% for the Rebalanced Threshold and 25% for the Unbalanced Threshold.
  • D. AP load balancing is disabled by default.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 35
An administrator implements the MultiZone feature and uses two clusters that utilize CPSec. A primary and a data zone are created. MultiZone APs successfully build sessions to the primary cluster but fail to establish sessions to the data zone cluster.
What must the administrator do to solve this problem?

  • A. Enable MultiZone booting in the MultiZone AP apboot configuration mode.
  • B. Add the MultiZone APs to the data zone's CPSec whitelist.
  • C. Use different AP Group names for the two zones.
  • D. Enable CPSec in the MultiZone profile for both the primary and data zone.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 36
An administrator implements a standalone controller that runs ArubaOS 8.x. Which feature should the administrator configure to optimize the RF operation for the company's WLAN?

  • A. Zones
  • B. Clustering
  • C. ARM
  • D. AirMatch

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.

Controllers are configured m a cluster as shown in the exhibit. These are the network details.
* A Mobility Master (MM) manages the cluster.
* The cluster contains two controllers: C l and C2.
* API and AP2 use CI as their Active AP Anchor Controller (A-AAC). with C2 as their Standby AAC (S-AAC).
* AP3 and AP4 use C2 as their A-AAC, with CI as their S-AAC.
User1 establishes a wireless connection via API, where the Active User Anchor Controller (A-UAC) assigned is CI. with C2 as the standby. What happens when User I roams the wireless network and eventually their session is handled by AP3?

  • A. The AP3's A-AAC switches to C2, and the user's A-UAC remains on C2.
  • B. The AP3's A-AAC switches to C1, and the user's A-UAC remains on C1.
  • C. The AP3's A-AAC switches to C2, and the user's A-UAC remains on C1.
  • D. The AP3's A-AAC switches to C1, and the user's A-UAC remains on C2.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 38
An administrator deploys Aruba Mobility Controller 7005s to a company's branch offices. The administrator wants to disable the console port to prevent unauthorized access to the controllers.
Which controller command should the administrator use to implement this policy?

  • A. console disable
  • B. no console enable
  • C. mgmt-user console-block
  • D. no mgmt-user console

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit.

A known unicast packet is received from Switch-1 on the standby and must be forwarded to Switch-2. How does the VSF fabric decide which port in the aggregated (ink should forward the packet?

  • A. The standby uses its own port in the link aggregation to forward the fabric.
  • B. The standby uses the typical load sharing algorithm, and it might select either its port or the commander's port.
  • C. The standby selects the port on the designated forwarder for the aggregation.
  • D. The standby sends the packet to the commander over a VSF link, and the commander decides the correct port.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 40
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